I don’t want to name the exact case or people involved but I can’t seem to understand how this even happened.Â
A man in Texas shoots two men in their backs after they robbed his neighbors house and tried to escape by crossing his lawn.
The man claimed that he feared for his life and that they were “attacking” even though the 911 operator urged him to stay in his house.
He ignored the advice given by the operator and went outside, ordered the two men to stop but when they didn’t, he shot them both.
And now a panel issues a no-bill after two weeks of testimony and he’s cleared by grand jury concluding that what he did was a justifiable use of deadly force and not murder.
Now I understand that in Texas, a person has a right to use deadly force to protect his property, but does that include a other people’s property?
If this man was fearing for his life, why did he go outside?
And who the hell was his lawyer because that guy is good!